2013年5月31日星期五

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Exam Code: 1Z0-007
Exam Name: Oracle (Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL)

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NO.1 Which three statements correctly describe the functions and use of constraints? (Choose three.)
A.Constraints provide data independence.
B.Constraints make complex queries easy.
C.Constraints enforce rules at the view level.
D.Constraints enforce rules at the table level.
E.Constraints prevent the deletion of a table if there are dependencies.
F.Constraints prevent the deletion of an index if there are dependencies.
Answer: CDE

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NO.2 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.employee_id, (.15* e.salary) + (.5 * e.commission_pct)
+ (s.sales_amount * (.35 * e.bonus)) AS CALC_VALUE
FROM employees e, sales s
WHERE e.employee_id = s.emp_id;
What will happen if you remove all the parentheses from the calculation?
A.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be lower.
B.The value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column will be higher.
C.There will be no difference in the value displayed in the CALC_VALUE column.
D.An error will be reported.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are two reasons to create synonyms? (Choose two.)
A.You have too many tables.
B.Your tables are too long.
C.Your tables have difficult names.
D.You want to work on your own tables.
E.You want to use another schema's tables.
F.You have too many columns in your tables.
Answer: CE

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NO.4 Which two are attributes of iSQL*Plus? (Choose two.)
A.iSQL*Plus commands cannot be abbreviated.
B.iSQL*Plus commands are accessed from a browser.
C.iSQL*Plus commands are used to manipulate data in tables.
D.iSQL*Plus commands manipulate table definitions in the database.
E.iSQL*Plus is the Oracle proprietary interface for executing SQL statements.
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMPLOYEES e, DEPARTMENTS d
WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;
In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?
A.selection, projection, join
B.difference, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which SQL statement generates the alias Annual Salary for the calculated column SALARY*12?
A.SELECT ename, salary*12 'Annual Salary'
FROM employees;
B.SELECT ename, salary*12 "Annual Salary"
FROM employees;
C.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS Annual Salary
FROM employees;
D.SELECT ename, salary*12 AS INITCAP("ANNUAL SALARY")
FROM employees
Answer: B

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NO.7 The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:
STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)
The registrar requested a report listing the students' grade point averages (GPA) sorted from highest
grade point average to lowest.
Which statement produces a report that displays the student ID and GPA in the sorted order requested by
the registrar?
A.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa ASC;
B.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa ASC;
C.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa;
D.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa;
E.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
SORT ORDER BY gpa DESC;
F.SELECT student_id, gpa
FROM student_grades
ORDER BY gpa DESC;
Answer: F

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about constraints? (Choose two.)
A.The UNIQUE constraint does not permit a null value for the column.
B.A UNIQUE index gets created for columns with PRIMARY KEY and UNIQUE constraints.
C.The PRIMARY KEY and FOREIGN KEY constraints create a UNIQUE index.
D.The NOT NULL constraint ensures that null values are not permitted for the column.
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
Which three subqueries work? (Choose three.)
A.SELECT *
FROM employees
where salary > (SELECT MIN(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
B.SELECT *
FROM employees
WHERE salary = (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
C.SELECT distinct department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
D.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
E.SELECT last_name
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ANY (SELECT MAX(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY department_id);
F.SELECT department_id
FROM employees
WHERE salary > ALL (SELECT AVG(salary)
FROM employees
GROUP BY AVG(SALARY));
Answer: CDE

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NO.11 What does the FORCE option for creating a view do?
A.creates a view with constraints
B.creates a view even if the underlying parent table has constraints
C.creates a view in another schema even if you don't have privileges
D.creates a view regardless of whether or not the base tables exist
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which SQL statement defines a FOREIGN KEY constraint on the DEPTNO column of the EMP table?
A.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk FOREIGN KEY deptno
REFERENCES dept deptno);
B.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2)
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
C.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno)
FOREIGN KEY (deptno));
D.CREATE TABLE EMP
(empno NUMBER(4),
ename VARCHAR2(35),
deptno NUMBER(7,2) FOREIGN KEY
CONSTRAINT emp_deptno_fk REFERENCES dept (deptno));
Answer: B

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NO.13 In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)
A.You want to create a nonequijoin.
B.The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C.The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D.The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E.You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.
Answer: CDE

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NO.14 Evaluate this SQL statement:
SELECT ename, sal, 12*sal+100
FROM emp;
The SAL column stores the monthly salary of the employee. Which change must be made to the above
syntax to calculate the annual compensation as "monthly salary plus a monthly bonus of $100, multiplied
by 12"?
A.No change is required to achieve the desired results.
B.SELECT ename, sal, 12*(sal+100)
FROM emp;
C.SELECT ename, sal, (12*sal)+100
FROM emp;
D.SELECT ename, sal+100,*12
FROM emp;
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which are iSQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A.INSERT
B.UPDATE
C.SELECT
D.DESCRIBE
E.DELETE
F.RENAME
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which view should a user query to display the columns associated with the constraints on a table
owned by the user?
A.USER_CONSTRAINTS
B.USER_OBJECTS
C.ALL_CONSTRAINTS
D.USER_CONS_COLUMNS
E.USER_COLUMNS
Answer: D

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NO.17 You need to design a student registration database that contains several tables storing academic
information.
The STUDENTS table stores information about a student. The STUDENT_GRADES table stores
information about the student's grades. Both of the tables have a column named STUDENT_ID. The
STUDENT_ID column in the STUDENTS table is a primary key.
You need to create a foreign key on the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENT_GRADES table that
points to the STUDENT_ID column of the STUDENTS table. Which statement creates the foreign key?
A.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk REFERENCES (student_id)
FOREIGN KEY students(student_id));
B.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
C.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
D.CREATE TABLE student_grades
(student_id NUMBER(12),
semester_end DATE,
gpa NUMBER(4,3),
CONSTRAINT student_id_fk FOREIGN KEY (student_id)
REFERENCES students(student_id));
Answer: D

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NO.18 A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1. Choose rows from a table.
2. Choose columns from a table.
3. Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A.difference, projection, join
B.selection, projection, join
C.selection, intersection, join
D.intersection, projection, join
E.difference, projection, product
Answer: B

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NO.19 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
STREET_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CITY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
STATE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
PROVINCE_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
COUNTRY_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(50)
POSTAL_CODE VARCHAR2(12)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
The CUSTOMER_ID column is the primary key for the table.
You need to determine how dispersed your customer base is. Which expression finds the number of
different countries represented in the CUSTOMERS table?
A.COUNT(UPPER(country_address))
B.COUNT(DIFF(UPPER(country_address)))
C.COUNT(UNIQUE(UPPER(country_address)))
D.COUNT DISTINCT UPPER(country_address)
E.COUNT(DISTINCT (UPPER(country_address)))
Answer: E

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NO.20 The CUSTOMERS table has these columns:
CUSTOMER_ID NUMBER(4) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_NAME VARCHAR2(100) NOT NULL
CUSTOMER_ADDRESS VARCHAR2(150)
CUSTOMER_PHONE VARCHAR2(20)
You need to produce output that states "Dear Customer customer_name, ".
The customer_name data values come from the CUSTOMER_NAME column in the CUSTOMERS table.
Which statement produces this output?
A.SELECT dear customer, customer_name,
B.SELECT "Dear Customer", customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
C.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name ','
FROM customers;
D.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ','
FROM customers;
E.SELECT "Dear Customer " || customer_name || ","
FROM customers;
F.SELECT 'Dear Customer ' || customer_name || ',' ||
FROM customers;
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 1Z0-033
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle9i Database:Performance Tuning)

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NO.1 View the Exhibit and examine the steps to create a database resource plan. Execution of the following
procedure resulted in an error:
SQL> EXECUTE dbms_resource_manager.validate_pending_area();
What could be the reason for this?
A.The ADMINISTER_RESOURCE_MANAGER privilege is not granted to the user.
B.The procedure should be executed before creating the resource plan directive.
C.The SYS_GROUP resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
D.The OTHER_GROUPS resource consumer group is not included in the resource plan directive.
Answer: D

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NO.2 You need to size the KEEP pool. Which calculation would you use to determine the initial size of the
KEEP pool?
A.50% of the DEFAULT pool
B.50% of the RECYCLE pool
C.the total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool / the number of
objects that you need in the KEEP pool
D.total number of blocks of all the candidate objects that you need in the KEEP pool + additional space to
allow for object growth
Answer: D

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NO.3 Smith is a DBA with ABC Corp. He is in the process of tuning the database. He has received various
problem statements from the customers. Identify three appropriately defined problem statements that
Smith can use to tune the database correctly. (Choose three.)
A.The system is too slow.
B.Online response is very slow.
C.Sometimes the batch process throws errors.
D.The weekly backup took 30 minutes, and earlier it used to take 5 minutes.
E.The batch process is taking 2 hours, whereas it should take only 30 minutes.
F.The system currently has 100 users. We wish to increase the number of users to 250. The users'
response time should not be affected.
Answer: DEF

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NO.4 You have online application users who are interested in seeing a few initial results of a query.
Therefore you require the query to produce a few initial rows quickly regardless of the presence of
statistics. Which optimizer mode would you choose?
A.RULE
B.CHOOSE
C.ALL_ROWS
D.FIRST_ROWS_n
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have reserved memory within the Shared Pool by using the SHARED_POOL_RESERVED_SIZE
parameter to accommodate large space allocations while compiling PL/SQL blocks and database
triggers.
While observing the performance of the reserved area, you find that the value of the
REQUEST_FAILURES column in the V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED view is continuously increasing.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A.The parsing of the statement fails due to invalidations.
B.The execution of the statement fails due to invalidations.
C.The space allocated for the reserved area is not enough.
D.The syntax in the PL/SQL blocks is causing the compilation failure.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Oracle Shared Server is best used when _____ and _____. (Choose two.)
A.the database is experiencing database-intensive work
B.the database is primarily used for batch or DSS operations
C.CPU usage on your machine is consistently at 90% or higher
D.an OLTP application is running on a machine approaching memory resource limits
E.you do not need to scale up the number of concurrent connections to the database
F.the database is primarily used for an interactive application where dedicated servers are mainly idle
Answer: DF

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NO.7 The following are the tasks that you need to perform to create a resource plan:
A) Creating resource consumer groups
B) Validating pending area
C) Creating a pending area
D) Creating resource plans
E) Creating plan directives
F) Submitting pending area
In which order would you perform these tasks?
A.C, D, A, E, B, F
B.C, B, F, E, A, D
C.C, B, E, D, A, F
D.C, F, E, A, D, B
tings with users once each two weeks to discuss performance
Answer: A

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NO.8 You create a stored outline and apply it for use. What strategy would you adopt to verify that the stored
outline is being used for a statement?
A.verify OL$,OL$HINTS, and OL$NODES tables after running the statement with
USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
B.examine the V$SQL dynamic performance view after running the statement with the
USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
C.compare the explain plan output for the statement when running with and without the
USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
D.compare the statspack output by taking snaps before and after running the statement with the
USE_STORED_OUTLINES set
Answer: C

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NO.9 View the Exhibit and examine the output to check the resource plan directives associated with the
groups in a plan.
Which three statements are true regarding the output? (Choose three.)
A.The users belonging to OTHER_GROUPS will never be able to run a query.
B.Even if there is only one active session running, that session is allowed to utilize all the available CPU
resources according to the directives of the plan.
C.It is possible to raise the priority for the online transaction processing (OLTP) group from 80% to 90%
without changing the priority for any other group.
D.In a fully loaded system, sessions for OTHER_GROUPS have to wait for other sessions to finish work if
all CPU is used by first three groups.
E.In a heavily used system, the sessions in the OLTP group have the ability to consume 80% or more of
the total CPU resources available.
Answer: BDE

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NO.10 Which two activities would adversely affect database performance? (Choose two.)
A.doing a soft parse
B.performing archiving
C.less frequent checkpointing
D.defining multiple buffer pools
E.taking online back up of data files
Answer: BE

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NO.11 A customer has various dictionary-managed tablespaces with past data. The extents in
dictionary-managed tablespaces are not uniformly sized. Newly created tablespaces are locally managed.
You want to make all the tablespaces locally managed. What approach would you use to change the
dictionary-managed tablespaces to locally managed tablespaces to get all the performance benefits of
local extent management?
A.use only the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
B.create new locally managed tablespaces and move data from existing dictionary-managed tablespaces
to locally managed tablespaces
C.use the DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure, followed by
DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_FIX_SEGMENT_STATES
D.use the ALTER TABLESPACE command to change extent management to local, and then use the
DBMS_SPACE_ADMIN.TABLESPACE_MIGRATE_TO_LOCAL procedure
Answer: B

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NO.12 Why does performance degrade when many UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE statements are issued on
a table that has an associated Bitmap index?
A.Some DML operations re-create the Bitmap index blocks.
B.The Bitmap index is rebuilt automatically after a DML operation.
C.The smallest amount of a bitmap that can be locked is a bitmap segment.
D.Additional time is taken to remove NULL values from the Bitmap index after a DML operation.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Smith is a DBA with XYZ Corp. There are 500 data entry users in an online transaction processing
(OLTP) environment. The current response time is 15-20 seconds. The company wants the response time
to be brought down to 10 seconds or less.
What is the first thing that Smith should do to diagnose the cause of the slow response time?
A.determine whether there is contention for locks
B.determine whether the file system is fast enough
C.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to PGA
D.determine whether more memory needs to be allocated to SGA
E.determine whether the slow response is wait bound or CPU bound
Answer: E

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NO.14 View the Exhibit.
In your database, you find that the fy05q1 table in a dictionary managed tablespace has excess space.
Further, you find that the table consists of three extents. The size of the first extent is 100KB, the second
is 200KB, and the third is 300K. The high water mark is in the middle of the second extent, and there is
400KB of unused space.
You want to release the unused space so that it can be used by other segments. You execute the
following command to achieve this task:
SQL> ALTER TABLE fy05q1 DEALLOCATE UNUSED;
What would this command do?
A.deallocates the third and second extents
B.deallocates the third extent; the second extent remains as it is
C.deallocates the third extent, and the second extent is sized to 100KB
D.returns an error because the unused space is above the high water mark
Answer: C

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NO.15 The values for the resource plan directives are set as follows:
SWITCH_GROUP = OLAP
SWITCH_TIME = 1000
SWITCH_ESTIMATE = True
What are the two implications of these values on a running session belonging to the consumer group for
which these directives are set? (Choose two.)
A.These settings are useful to limit the resources consumed by short-running operations.
B.The resource manager switches the session to the OLAP group if the session is active for more than
1,000 seconds and after the operation the session becomes part of the OLAP group.
C.The resource manager can switch the session to the OLAP group before an operation even starts
running.
D.The resource manager switches the session to the online analytical processing (OLAP) group if the
session is active for more than 1,000 seconds and after the operation the session is moved back to the
original group.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 When tuning a database server, which three goals should you focus on? (Choose three.)
A.minimize response time for OLTP users
B.maximize throughput for batch processing
C.minimize response time for batch processing
D.increase load capability for the decision-support systems
E.minimize parallelism for online transaction processing (OLTP) systems
Answer: ABD

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NO.17 In an online transaction processing (OLTP) system, you notice that the transactions are waiting. Which
two techniques would you use to determine if it is a locking problem? (Choose two.)
A.query V$SESSION to determine the sessions waiting for locks
B.query V$LOCKED_OBJECT to diagnose the deadlocked sessions
C.execute the utllockt.sql script to find the list of locking and waiting transactions
D.use the catblock.sql script to populate DBA_BLOCKERS and DBA_WAITERS views
E.query the DBA_WAITERS view to determine the sessions that are waiting for a locked resource
Answer: CE

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NO.18 ABC Corp. has an online transaction processing (OLTP) system that has just gone into production. The
system was rigorously tested during the development phases.
What is the first recommended activity that the DBA should perform before starting to monitor the
performance of the system on a regular basis?
A.running SQL*Trace
B.collecting baseline statistics
C.analyzing indexes and user tables
D.arranging meetings with users once each two weeks to discuss performance
Answer: B

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NO.19 ABC Corp. plans to build an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The company plans to tune
all the components during the development life cycle.
From the list given below, identify the order in which the components should be tuned.
1: logical and physical model
2: cursor sharing
3: Oracle instance memory structures
4: operating system
5: data file I/O
A.1, 2, 3, 5, 4
B.1, 3, 2, 4, 5
C.1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D.1, 2, 5, 3, 4
Answer: A

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NO.20 You executed the following query to know about users and their consumer groups:
SQL> SELECT * FROM DBA_RSRC_CONSUMER_GROUP_PRIVS;
GRANTEE GRANTED_GROUP GRANT_OPTION INITIAL_GROUP
--------------- ------------------------- --------------- ---------------
SCOTT LOW_GROUP NO NO
PUBLIC LOW_GROUP NO NO
PUBLIC DEFAULT_CONSUMER_GROUP YES YES
SYSTEM SYS_GROUP NO YES
If the user SCOTT starts a session, to which consumer group will the session belong?
A.The session belongs to LOW_GROUP.
B.The session belongs to SYS_GROUP.
C.The session belongs to DEFAULT_CONSUMER_GROUP.
D.The session does not belong to any group because the user is not assigned to any group.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 1Z0-020
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle8l:new features for administrators)

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NO.1 Which tool, integrated with Oracle universal installer, can be used by third-party vendors to install their
products as art of an Oracle installation?
A. Oracle Software Packager.
B. Java Run-Time environment.
C. Database migration assistant.
D. Optimal flexible architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two options are valid for LOBs during their creation? (Choose two)
A. REDO
B. NOREDO
C. LOGGING
D. NOLOGGING
E. RECOVERABLE
F. UNRECEOVERABLE
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Dimensions are based on summaries.
B. The ALTER MATERIALIZED VIEW CONSIDER FRESH statement directs Oracle to consider the
materialized view fresh, and therefore eligible for query rewrite in the TRUSTED or STALE_TOLERATED
mode only.
C. Summaries without dimensions are used for faster aggregation.
D. Additional query rewrites at a higher level of aggregation can take place if summaries are created at
the lowest level of aggregation.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 What can you see when querying V$LOGMNR_CONTENTS?
A. The SQL statement run and the old image.
B. The SQL statement run, and the new image.
C. Only the redo generated by the current schema.
D. The SQL statement run, and the relevant undo SQL statement.
E. The old image and the new image of the row that was modified.
Answer: E

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NO.5 Which parameter would you use to set up archiving to a remote machine?
A. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST
B. LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2
C. LOG_ARCHIVE_REMOTE_DEST
D. ARCHIVE_REMOTE_DEST
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Composite partitioning supports local indexes.
B. Composite partitioning supports hash-partitioned global indexes.
C. Composite partitioning supports range-partitioned global indexes
D. Composite partitioning supports composite-partitioned global indexes.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which tablespace stores the segment of a temporary table?
A. The default tablespace for user SYS.
B. The temporary tablespace for user SYS.
C. The default tablespace for the current user.
D. The temporary tablespace for the current user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Examine this command:ALTER SYSTEM SET USESTORED_OUTLINE = TRUE; Which outline
category will be used?
A. SYS
B. OUTLINE
C. TRUE
D. DEFAULT
Answer: D

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NO.9 You set the PARALLEL_AUTOMATIC_TUNING initialization parameter to FALSE. What happens?
(Choose two)
A. Parallel execution buffers are allocated from the large pool.
B. Parallel execution buffers are allocated from the shared pool.
C. Only tables with a degree of parallelism specified will be scanned in parallel.
D. A load balancing algorithm will be used to distribute evenly load across nodes in a multi instance PQ
environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which two factors can influence the time taken for instance recovery? (Choose two)
A. Size of the redo log buffer.
B. Value of FAST_START_TO_TARGET
C. Size of the system tablespace.
D. Value of RECOVERY_PARALLELISM
E. The number of archived redo logs that have to be read.
F. The number of tables stored in the database buffer cache at the moment of failure.
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 1Z1-050
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: New Features for Administrators)

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NO.1 Following is the list of locations in random order where oranfstab can be placed.
What is the sequence in which Direct NFS will search the locations?
A.1, 2, 3
B.3, 2, 1
C.2, 3, 1
D.1, 3, 2
Answer: C

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NO.2 You decided to use Direct NFS configuration in a non-RAC Oracle installation and created the
oranfstab file in /etc.
Which two statements are true regarding this oranfstab file? (Choose two.)
A.Its entries are specific to a single database.
B.It contains file systems that have been mounted by Direct NFS.
C.It is globally available to all Oracle 11g databases on the machine.
D.It contains file systems that have been mounted by the kernel NFS system.
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1, 2 and 3
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the recommendations for Oracle Database 11g installation to make it Optimal Flexible
Architecture (OFA)-compliant? (Choose all that apply.)
A.ORACLE_BASE should be set explicitly.
B.An Oracle base should have only one Oracle home created in it.
C.Flash recovery area and data file location should be on separate disks.
D.Flash recovery area and data file location should be created under Oracle base in a non-Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) setup.
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same
system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The source database should be open.
B.The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C.RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA.
D.The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E.The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the
target.
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A.SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B.SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C.SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D.SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS
Answer: B

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NO.7 During the installation of Oracle Database 11g, you do not set ORACLE_BASE explicitly. You selected
the option to create a database as part of the installation. How would this environment variable setting
affect the installation?
A.The installation terminates with an error.
B.The installation proceeds with the default value without warnings and errors.
C.The installation proceeds with the default value but it would not be an OFA-compliant database.
D.The installation proceeds with the default value but a message would be generated in the alert log file.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization
parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is
set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1.
Which two statements are true in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A.The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled.
B.The ASM supports variable sizes for extents of 1, 8, and 64 allocation units.
C.The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable.
D.The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group.
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which dependent object will get invalidated even if it is not affected by the table redefinition?
A.views
B.triggers
C.packages
D.synonyms
Answer: B

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NO.10 Examine the following PL/SQL block:
Which statement describes the effect of the execution of the above PL/SQL block?
A.The plan baselines are verified with the SQL profiles.
B.All fixed plan baselines are converted into nonfixed plan baselines.
C.All the nonaccepted SQL profiles are accepted into the plan baseline.
D.The nonaccepted plans in the SQL Management Base are verified with the existing plan baselines.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two statements are true with respect to the maintenance window? (Choose two.)
A.A DBA can enable or disable an individual task in all maintenance windows.
B.A DBA cannot change the duration of the maintenance window after it is created.
C.In case of a long maintenance window, all Automated Maintenance Tasks are restarted every four
hours.
D.A DBA can control the percentage of the resource allocated to the Automated Maintenance Tasks in
each window.
Answer: AD

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NO.12 You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database.
As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?
A.It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B.It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C.It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D.It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E.It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.
Answer: C

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NO.13 In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A.It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B.It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C.It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D.It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E.It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Answer: AD

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NO.14 Which two statements are true regarding hot patching? (Choose two.)
A.It requires relinking of the Oracle binary.
B.It does not require database instance shutdown.
C.It can detect conflicts between two online patches.
D.It is available for installing all patches on all platforms.
E.It works only in a single database instance environment.
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following
command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE
A.It enables all system triggers.
B.It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C.It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D.It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade
scripts to be run.
Answer: BD

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NO.16 Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A.Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B.Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C.Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D.The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM).
Answer: CD

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NO.17 Identify two situations in which you can use Data Recovery Advisor for recovery. (Choose two.)
A.The database files are corrupted when the database is open.
B.The archived log files are missing for which backup is not available.
C.The user has dropped an important table that needs to be recovered.
D.You are not able to start up the database instance because the required database files are missing.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 You opened the encryption wallet and then issued the following command:
Then you closed the wallet. Later, you issued the following command to create the EMPLOYEES table in
the SECURESPACE tablespace and you use the NO SALT option for the EMPID column.
What is the outcome?
A.It creates the table and encrypts the data in it.
B.It generates an error because the wallet is closed.
C.It creates the table but does not encrypt the data in it.
D.It generates an error because the NO SALT option cannot be used with the ENCRYPT option.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11g database in a
multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following
script:
SQL> @utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A.It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B.It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C.It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D.It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A.It bypasses the OS file system cache.
B.A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C.It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D.File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E.Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS
driver.
Answer: AE

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Exam Code: 1Z0-241
Exam Name: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Develper I: PeopleTools and PeopleCode)

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NO.1 Select the three properties that you can maintain in a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose three.)
A.Triggers
B.PeopleCode
C.Column order
D.Record field length
E.Query Security record
F.Prompt Security record
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 View the Exhibit.
As the component processor loads a component, it executes PeopleCode programs according to buffer
allocation rules.
Each row in the table represents a PeopleCode program and its associated definition, scroll level, and
event. In what order will the programs execute?
A.A, B, C, D, E
B.C, A, D, E,B
C.C, E,A, D, B
D.E, C, A, B, D
E.E, D, C, B, A
Answer: D

Oracle test questions   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.3 Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a high-level key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE

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NO.4 On the Process Scheduler Request page, you have to define the output type for your job or process.
Which three statements are true regarding the process output type? (Choose three.)
A.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level carries through to the job items.
B.When an output type is selected for a process at the process definition level, it can be changed.
C.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level does not carry through to the job items.
D.An output type that is selected for individual job items overwrites the output type that is entered for the
parent job.
E.An output type that is selected for individual processes or jobs that are attached to a job cannot override
the tput type that is entered for the parent job.
F.An output type that is selected for a process at the process definition level overwrites the output type in
the Process Scheduler Request page, and the Type drop-down list box in the Process Scheduler Request
page becomes unavailable.
Answer: ADF

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NO.5 Select the record definition that is configured correctly.
A.
B,
C.
D.
Answer: C

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NO.6 For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this
component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the
component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D

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NO.7 View the Exhibit.
Select the page that most likely uses this subpage.
A.
A.
A
B.
C
D
Answer: D

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NO.8 Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D

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NO.9 What type of PeopleCode looping construct will loop a specified number of times?
A.For
B.While
C.Do While
D.Do Until
E.Repeat-For
Answer: A

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NO.10 Select the two field types that should be placed at the end of a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose
two.)
A.Image
B.Prompt
C.Character
D.Attachment
E.Long character
F.ImageReference
Answer: AE

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NO.11 View the Exhibit.
Based on this Build dialog box, select the two options that are true. (Choose two.)
A.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables are created.
B.When you click the Build button, nothing happens to your database.
C.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables may lose existing data.
D.When you click the Build button, the TS_INSTSCHD_VW view is created.
E.When you click the Build button, Application Designer generates a script file.
Answer: BE

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NO.12 Which two PeopleCode events are part of the field action event set? (Choose two.)
A.FieldEdit
B.SystemEdit
C.FieldDefault
D.FieldFormula
E.FieldChange
F.RecordDefault
Answer: AE

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NO.13 View the Exhibit.
You create this record definition and use Application Designer to complete a successful SQL build. Select
the four true statements regarding the SQL build. (Choose four.)
A.At least one index is created.
B.Related language tables are updated.
C.Data is written to the system catalog tables.
D.The DATE field is designated as NOT NULL.
E.The REVIEW_DAYS field is designated as NOT NULL. F.The prefix PS_ is inserted at the beginning of
the table name.
Answer: ACEF

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NO.14 Select three changes to a record definition that require you to rebuild the SQL table. (Choose three.)
A.You change the label of a key field.
B.You deselect the Search Key check box.
C.You change the length of a non-key field.
D.You deselect the Alternate Search Key check box.
E.You change an ascending key to a descending key.
Answer: CDE

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NO.15 Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C

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NO.16 View the Exhibits.
Based on this page layout and page order, select the two true statements about this page definition.
(Choose two.)
A.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved without error.
B.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a related field error.
C.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page contains a parent/child design error.
D.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a duplicate record field warning.
Answer: CD

Oracle   1Z0-241 practice test   1Z0-241 pdf

NO.17 Select the two properties of a summary page. (Choose two.)
A.It is display-only.
B.It contains only level zero.
C.It contains no related fields.
D.It references one record definition.
Answer: AC

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NO.18 Select the three true statements regarding search keys. (Choose three.) A.Search key fields are
indexed.
A.Search key fields are indexed.
B.Search key fields appear on the search page.
C.A field can be a search key even if it is not a key.
D.Selecting the Search Key option automatically selects the List Box Item option.
E.If an existing key field is changed to a search key, you must alter or rebuild the table.
F.The search key property is irrelevant if the record definition is not used as a search record.
Answer: ABD

Oracle questions   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.19 Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions
cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition's default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD

Oracle   1Z0-241 test answers   1Z0-241

NO.20 When considering key structure, which three options are mutually exclusive? (Choose three.)
A.Key
B.Search Key
C.Descending Key
D.Alternate Search Key
E.Duplicate Order Key
Answer: ADE

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2013年5月30日星期四

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Exam Code: 000-M99
Exam Name: IBM ( IBM Coremetrics Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of category levels supported in the Merchandising Report?
A. Unlimited
B. 15
C. 10
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.2 How are CDF files loaded into Coremetrics Analytics/Explore?
A. FTP
B. Directly through the Coremetrics Import interface.
C. Email
D. Via FTP or directly through the Coremetrics Import interface.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the offsite Marketing Campaign URL parameter?
A. cm_marketing
B. cm_mark
C. marketingID
D. cm_mmc
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a report chart type?
A. Bar
B. Radar
C. Pie
D. Cumulative Trend
Answer: B

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Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-563
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1)

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NO.1 Which two IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components are used to control AssemblyLine flow?
(Choose two.)
A. Else Branch
B. Attribute Map
C. Fail-over Node
D. Connector Loop
E. Aggregator Loop
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which two options are available in AssemblyLine (AL) settings? (Choose two.)
A. view AL statistics
B. select the Property Store to use
C. configure Null Behavior at the AL level
D. define default error handling for the AL
E. set the AL pool size when Server mode is in use
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 What are two different ways to start an AssemblyLine (AL) with parameters from another AL? (Choose
two.)
A. AssemblyLine Parser
B. AssemblyLine Launcher
C. AssemblyLine Connector
D. AssemblyLine Loop Component
E. AssemblyLine Function Component
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 Which statement is true for Server mode?
A. It is similar to the Delta mode.
B. It can be used in the Flow Section of the AssemblyLine.
C. It is used to play back a recorded AssemblyLine execution.
D. It binds to some resource (like an IP port), accepts client connections, processes incoming data, and
returns a response to the client.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which two statements are true for the IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 Entry Object? (Choose two.)
A. It analyzes and correlates events.
B. It can represent a single database row.
C. It acts as a client to a connected system.
D. It can be manipulated directly from Hook scripts.
E. It is used to encode a byte stream during read and write operations.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which statement is true for the Action Manager?
A. It updates the Work Entry.
B. It can send an Initial Work Entry to an AssemblyLine.
C. It is a command line utility used for importing certificates.
D. It executes rules that are configured using the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about one AssemblyLine (AL1) starting another AssemblyLine (AL2) in
IBM Tivoli Directory
Integrator V7.1 (TDI)? (Choose two.)
A. Both ALs can run at the same time.
B. Both ALs must be part of the same TDI Project.
C. Both ALs must be running on the same TDI Server.
D. The Task Call Block is used to pass in parameters and data.
E. If AL2 is started using script calls then it runs at a higher priority.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 Which two statements are true regarding a Task Call Block (TCB)? (Choose two.)
A. It is used for deleting an entry in Delete mode.
B. It is used by a caller to set a number of parameters for an AssemblyLine (AL).
C. It contains information about AL exceptions and error codes.
D. It is a Search (criteria) object used by ALs and Connectors to specify a generic search criteria.
E. It can provide a list of input or output parameters specified by an AL, including operation codes defined
in theOperations tab of the AL.
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 Which three IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1 components can be used in an AssemblyLine?
(Choose three.)
A. Script
B. Compiler
C. Connector
D. Protocol Bridge
E. Lexical Analyzer
F. Function Component
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.10 Which Connector mode can be used in the AssemblyLine Feed section?
A. Delta
B. Iterator
C. Updat
D. AddOnly
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the unit of work in IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1?
A. Project
B. Connector
C. System Store
D. AssemblyLine
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about an AssemblyLine (AL)? (Choose two.)
A. An AL with an empty Feed section can do work.
B. An AL must have at least one component in the Flow section.
C. All ALs run in sequence, each one starting when the previous one shuts down.
D. The Recycle Execution mode ensures that an AL is re-launched if it terminates.
E. The Feed section acts like a loop and cycles the Flow section components once for each available
entry.
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 Which connector type must be used to access an LDAP LDIF file?
A. JNDI Connector
B. LDIF Connector
C. LDAP Connector D. File System Connector
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is an Initial Work Entry?
A. It logs information about an initial error code.
B. It is an entry passed to an AssemblyLine when it is started.
C. It is the first entry retrieved from the Connector in Iterator mode.
D. It is used during initialization of the Administration and Monitoring Console.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What are two uses for a Server mode Connector? (Choose two.)
A. to implement a web service
B. to intercept LDAP bind requests
C. to run AssembyLines in Simulation mode
D. to run multiple AssembyLines simultaneously
E. to enable First Failure Data Capture in AssemblyLines
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 Which three platforms support IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator V7.1? (Choose three.)
A. AIX
B. HP/UX
C. Android
D. OS/400
E. System z
F. Mac OS X
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.17 What is a valid component in an AssemblyLine?
A. Script
B. Method
C. Procedure
D. Subroutine
Answer: A

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NO.18 A company's business requirements state that real-time changes must be synchronized from an IBM
LDAP directory to an RDBMS database. Which Connector is required to feed data in to the
AssemblyLine?
A. JNDI Connector
B. FileSystem Connector
C. LDAP Server Connector
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server Change Log Connector
Answer: D

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NO.19 AssemblyLines can be monitored using which two methods? (Choose two.)
A. System Store
B. Changelog Connectors
C. Server mode Connectors
D. command line utility tdisrvctl
E. Administration and Monitoring Console
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Where does the Delta Engine store the snapshots it takes of data being iterated?
A. Work Entry
B. Conn Object
C. System Store
D. System Queue
Answer: C

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