2013年7月31日星期三

The Best IBM 000-733 exam practice questions and answers

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Exam Code: 000-733

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Application Developer-DB29)

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NO.1 What is the minimum privilege required to run a User Defined Function (UDF)?
A. CALL
B. EXECUTE
C. SYSCTRL
D. SYSMAINT
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following restrictions pertains to embedded SQL external routines?
A. Environment variables with names that start with 'DB2' are not allowed.
B. Executing statements or commands that are connection related is not allowed.
C. Environment variable values that were set before the DB2 database manager is started are not
available.
D. When returning result sets from external nested stored procedures, a cursor cannot be opened with
the same name onmultiple nesting levels.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given the following table and view definitions: CREATE TABLE city ( cityid INT GENERATED
ALWAYS AS IDENTITY , city_name CHAR(10), state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN
('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));CREATE VIEW city_view AS ( SELECT city_name||','||state_code AS fullname
FROM city WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL')); and the following trigger definition:CREATE
TRIGGER city_viewInput INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view REFERENCING NEW AS nFOR EACH
ROW MODE DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC DECLARE delim INT;SET delim = LOCATE(',', n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code) VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1),
SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));END; If the following SQL statments are executed:INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ; INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL'); INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI'); INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX'); INSERT INTO
city_view VALUES('Denver,CO'); How many rows will be returned by the following query: SELECT *
FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.4 Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
=====
==== ======
======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN
D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:CREATE TRIGGER track_chgsAFTER UPDATE OF salary, name,
empno ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE
DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO changes SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP FROM
ntable; END; After executing the following SQL statements:DELETE FROM changes; UPDATE emp SET
deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95'; INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90', 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;UPDATE emp SET salary = salary +
1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;What value will be returned by this query?SELECT count(*) FROM
changes
A. 2
B. 3 C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a database connection
to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C

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NO.6 Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C

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NO.7 Table EMPLOYEE contains the following rows: EMPNO FIRSTNME LASTNAME WORKDEPT
000010.CHRISTINE HAAS A00 000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON B01 000030 SALLY KWAN C01 The
isolation level for Application 1 is set to CS and autocommit is disabled. The isolation level for Application
2 is set to CS and the autocommit is enabled. The following statements are executed in sequence:
Application 1:
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno OPEN C1 FETCH C1
FETCH C1 Application 2:
UPDATE employee SET lastname = 'MILLFORD' WHERE empno = '000020' Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 2 runs with autocommit enabled so no row level locks are
necessary for the update.
B. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 1 holds a row level lock that is compatible with the lock
required by Application 2.
C. The UPDATE fails because Application 1 holds a row level read lock that is in conflict with the lock
required by Application 2.C.
D. The UPDATE fails because the row level locks held by Application 1 have been escalated to table lock
so updates by other connections are disallowed.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Given the following table definition:CREATE TABLE staff ( id SMALLINT NOT NULL, name
VARCHAR(9), dept SMALLINT, job CHAR(5)) Assuming that the following statements execute
successfully:Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand() cmdStaff.CommandText =
"SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)" Which of the following is the correct way to provide a
value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value ="Mgr"
Answer: D

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NO.9 If the following code is executed in the order shown:conDB2 As
DB2ConnectionconDB2.ConnectionString =
"Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"conDB2.Open() Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the
local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the
local database catalog.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a characteristic of an application that uses a Distributed Unit of Work
(DUOW)?
A. A single transaction can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
B. Multiple transactions can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
C. A single transaction can read and/or modify data stored across multiple database servers.
D. Multiple transactions can read and/or modify data stored on multiple database servers provided each
transaction only accesses a single server.
Answer: C

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NO.11 After installing the DB2 Express-C 9 it was discovered that the Development Workbench was not
available. What
was the reason for that?
A. It must be installed separately.
B. It is not supported with DB2 Express-C 9.
C. Since it is a licensed tool, it must be purchased from IBM.
D. Review the DB2 installation log for errors. Reinstall DB2 Express-C 9.
Answer: A

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NO.12 An SQL procedure has been developed with several inline SQL PL statements encapsulated in a
dynamic compound SQL statement. The procedure had been tested and performed well. After making a
change to the last SQL statement the procedure not only failed to complete, but did not produce output
from any statements which were not modified. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
A. The dynamic compound SQL is atomic.
B. The procedure doesn't have any savepoints.
C. The procedure has not been correctly re-cataloged.
D. The dynamic compound SQL individual statements are logically dependent on each other.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is a SQL stored procedure which will return a resultset containing ID, NAME,
DEPT and JOB values out of the STAFF table?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set() LANGUAGE SQL BEGIN SELECT id, name, dept, job FROM
staff; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN SELECT id, name,
dept, job FROM staff; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN C1; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set()
LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN c1; END
Answer: D

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NO.14 Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a fix to be applied.
Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the table with a
Cursor Stability isolation level. What would be the best course of action to improve the system's
concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT operation.
Answer: C

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NO.15 An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following query:SELECT
t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1 If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX database and
table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the followingDB2 object types must the identifier
T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B

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NO.16 A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a
syntax errorexception is thrown. Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for this syntax
error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A

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NO.17 A table named ACTIVITY.LOG was created by executing the following statement:CREATE TABLE
activity.log (event VARCHAR(128), date DATE) Then, a stored procedure named ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT
was created by executing the following statement: CREATE PROCEDURE activity.logEvent(IN stmtType
CHAR(1)) LANGUAGE SQLMainBody: BEGIN DECLARE sqlerrm VARCHAR(256) DEFAULT '';
DECLARE ErrorIndicator CHAR(1) DEFAULT 'N';
SQLStmt: BEGIN
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
BEGIN
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END;
IF stmtType = 'I' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Insert Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'U' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Update Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'D' THEN I
NSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Delete Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSE
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END IF;
END SQLStmt;
IF ErrorIndicator = 'Y' THEN
SIGNAL SQLSTATE '70000' SET message_text = 'Could not update activity log.';
END IF;
END MainBody
User USER1 has the authority to access/manipulate data in the ACTIVITY.LOG table as well as to invoke
the
procedure ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT. If user USER1 executes the following commands:
CONNECT TO sample USER user1 USING ibmdb2;
DELETE FROM activity.log;
CALL activity.logEvent('i'); What will be the results?
A. The string "Insert Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
B. The string "Update Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
C. The string "Delete Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
D. The error message 'SQL0438N Application raised error with diagnostic text: "Could not update activity
log.".SQLSTATE=70000' will be generated.
Answer: D

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NO.18 After executing the following SQL statements: CREATE TABLE tab1 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1)); CREATE TABLE tab2 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1), FOREIGN KEY (col1)
REFERENCES tab1(col1) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); INSERT INTO tab1
VALUES(1, 'A'); INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, 'B'); INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, 'A'); INSERT INTO
tab2 VALUES(2, 'B'); UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2 = 'B';
What values will be returned by the following SQL query?SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab1 A.COL1 COL2
==== ==== 2 'B'
A. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'B'
B. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A'
C. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 1 'A' 2 'B'
D. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A' 3 'B'
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following SQL statements demonstrates the correct usage of a parameter marker?
A. SELECT ? FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
B. SELECT [] FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
C. SELECT CAST(? AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
D. SELECT CAST([] AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-443

Exam Name: IBM (DB2 content manager v8.3)

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NO.1 An Item Type must contain which of the following?
A.A root component
B.A resource component
C.At least one child component
D.An item constructor component
Correct:A

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NO.2 Additional privileges were added to a privilege set associated with a user group, which has been
assigned to an ACL. However, a user in this user group does not see these privileges. Which of
the following is a possible reason for this outcome?
A.The user belongs to a subdomain.
B.The privilege was added to a different privilege set.
C.The user is not a Content Manager system administrator.
D.An ACL cannot grant more access than a user has in the privilege set associated with their user ID.
Correct:D

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NO.3 Which TWO of the following are valid delete rules that may be applied to a child component
definition?
A.Cascade
B.Restrict
C.SetToNull
D.No Action
E.SetDefault
Correct:A B

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NO.4 The DB2 Content Manager connector API query language is similar to which of the following?
A.SQL
B.XPath
C.XQuery
D.Regular expressions
Correct:B

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NO.5 In a system with administrative domains enabled, which of the following objects can exist in
more then one domain?
A.User IDs
B.Collections
C.Resource Managers
D.Access Control Lists
Correct:D

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NO.6 Which of the following options allows one to quickly develop an MS .NET application which
accesses data stored in a DB2 Content Manager Server?
A.Portlet
B.Web services
C.User exit on the Client for Windows
D.XML Services provided by the C++ API
Correct:B

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NO.7 In a system that uses DB2 Information Integrator for Content and Workflow, how can a user be
deleted from Workflow that has already been deleted in DB2 Information Integrator for Content?
A.Run the EIPUser2WF.bat to delete the users from Workflow.
B.Run the fmcibie utility to delete users and user groups from Workflow.
C.Add the deleted persons to the DeletePersons.fdl file and restart the Workflow service.
D.These users are always synchronized and therefore will never have to delete users directly from
Workflow.
Correct:B

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NO.8 The migrator process has been set to check for data to migrate at intervals of 15 minutes
between 8:30 PM and 4:30 AM. Sometimes the migration process takes about 20 minutes to
complete. What happens when the last migration process commences?
A.The migrator will start logging errors as soon as it hits 4:30 AM.
B.The migrator will stop if it runs past 4:30 AM and resume at 8:30 PM from where it stopped.
C.The migrator will complete the last migration process and will stop until the next cycle begins.
D.The migrator will stop at 4:30 AM and an optional flag can be set to email an administrator of a stalled
migration.
Correct:C

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NO.9 A Content Manager administrator has found that after importing users defined in LDAP into
Content Manager, the imported users are unable to log in to Content Manager. From the
Tools>Logging menu in the System Administration client, where would one change the tracing
level to help diagnose this problem?
A.General
B.System Administration
C.Library Server
D.Resource Manager
Correct:B

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NO.10 A solutions integrator has been asked to extract administrative metadata in XML format from
DB2 Content Manager in a custom application. Which of the following approaches is the simplest
solution to accomplish this task?
A.Use the DKXMLSysAdminService service class in the XML Java API.
B.Use the XML Schema Mapping tool to export the XML data to a file.
C.Use the DKAdminData class to extract the data inside a C++ program.
D.Write a custom administrative user exit to export the XML data to a file.
Correct:A

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NO.11 An administrator wants to configure a federated search including a DB2 Content Manager
server on an iSeries platform. Which of the following files will need to be updated?
A.frnolint.tbl
B.cmbicmenv.ini
C.cmbicmsrvs.ini
D.cmbcmenv.properties
Correct:A

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NO.12 A collection point provides which of the following functions?
A.Defines the data storage volumes for document routing folders and folder items.
B.Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node after
administrator approval.
C.Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. The types of documents collected are specifically
determined by the business task. The collected documents are automatically sent to the next defined
work node.
D.Waits for external documents to collect in a folder. It sends documents to another work node after a
folder has collected the required number of documents or sets a notification flag if the time allotted to wait
for the required documents has expired.
Correct:D

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NO.13 What is the default duration of a security token generated to access a resource manager object?
A.1 day
B.2 days
C.2 hours
D.30 minutes
Correct:B

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NO.14 When a connection to a pre-existing Content Manager database server is being defined during
an installation of a new administrative client, what will happen if the schema name is omitted or
typed incorrectly?
A.The administrative client will fail to start.
B.The installation process will create a default schema.
C.The System Administration client list of servers will appear empty.
D.During startup the administrative client will ask the user to define a schema since it was missing during
installation.
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which item type classification does NOT allow text searching on the content of a text document?
A.Item
B.Document
C.Resource
D.Document Part
Correct:A

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NO.16 A developer needs to integrate enterprise content with two line-of-business applications. The
first application contains DB2 relational data and the second one is an archive of images residing
on a Domino.DOC system. Which of the following approaches will work best if the goal is to
minimize both the development time and the amount of code written and maintained by the client?
A.Develop Java applications using the base libraries of DB2 and Domino.DOC.
B.Develop the application using the native API's available with DB2 and Domino.DOC.
C.Develop the application using the Federated connector within the WebSphere Information Integrator for
Content Edition.
D.Develop the application using the Relational data connector and the Domino.doc enabler connector
within the WebSphere Information Integrator for Content Edition.
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which THREE of the following files contain System Administration Client error logging
information?
A.dklog.log
B.cmadmin.log
C.cmbadmerr.log
D.IDMSysAdmin.log
E.IDMcmberror.log
F.cmbadminerr.log
Correct:A B C

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NO.18 A developer needs to prototype the integration of DB2 Content Manager with an existing
application built on the Microsoft .NET framework. Which of the following related to the
integration options is accurate?
A.The developer will need to rewrite the .NET application in Java.
B.The developer must recompile the .NET application as a Visual C++ 6.0 application.
C.The developer will be able to connect directly to Content Manager from the .NET application.
D.The developer will be able to connect to Content Manager but only through a Java proxy class.
Correct:C

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NO.19 During installation, which of the following options must be configured to connect to an LDAP
server and retrieve user names and groups into Content Manager?
A.Base DN and group names
B.Server name and Base DN
C.Server name and group attributes
D.Base DN and minimum number of records to retrieve
Correct:B

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NO.20 A new user has just been added to the Content Manager system. The administrator wants to
assign this userid a privilege set in an already existing access control list. The userid is not
shown in the access control list modification panel. Which of the following is the most likely
reason for this?
A.The access control list is already in use and cannot be modified anymore.
B.The userid has an assigned privilege set which includes the ItemSuperAccess privilege.
C.The password for the new userid is expired immediately, and therefore, this userid cannot be accessed.
D.The Content Manager System Administration client needs to be restarted after a userid is created to
refresh the cache.
Correct:B

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Exam Code: 000-939

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Change and Configuration Manager Database V7.1.1)

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NO.1 When should existing middleware be reused?
A.when reusing existing access policies
B.when a quick CCMDB deployment is top priority
C.when security policies prevent administrator access to new hardware
D.when security policies prevent the creation of a new database or application server
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which component of the CCMDB data layer performs the data discovery and loads data into a CMDB
based on the Common Data Model.
A.TADDM
B.the Maximo Database
C.the Change Management Module
D.the Configuration Management Module
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about the Common Data Model. (Choose two.)
A.The Common Data Model is based on LDAP.
B.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IML.
C.The Discovery Library XML Schema is called IdML.
D.The Discovery Library Adapters use SOAP to interface with the Common Data Model.
E.Discovery Library Adapters enable the import and export of data according to the Common Data Model.
Answer: CE

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NO.4 Which three high-level concepts are related to the Common Data Model? (Choose three.)
A.Details
B.Classes
C.Schema
D.Attributes
E.Network Addressing
F.Naming Rules and Identification
Answer: BDF

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NO.5 Which business object represents a trackable and assignable request for work?
A.a Report
B.an Asset
C.a Workflow
D.a Process Request
Answer: D

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NO.6 When creating a document to map tasks to roles for a deployment of CCMDB, which single goal is of
primary importance?
A.create a Role Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
B.create a Task Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
C.create a Work Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
D.create a Responsibility Breakdown Structure of the list of all activities and tasks
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two actions are performed from the CCMDB administrative workstation? (Choose two.)
A.import TADDM data
B.install patches and upgrades
C.control user IDs and Security groups
D.install WebSphere Application Servers
E.build CCMDB EAR (Enterprise Archive) files
Answer: BE

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NO.8 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the DBMS to be utilized for meeting requirements
B.examine the platform (OS) for the DB server for meeting requirements
C.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AB

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NO.9 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.map roles to the defined tasks
B.define the level of effort for each task
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer wants to implement CCMDB to handle the companys IT Change Requests. The customer
is considering several supported configurations to better reuse the companys existent middleware.
Which configurations are valid options for the customer?
A.reuse of MS SQL Server as the Database Server
new installation of MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
reuse of IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
new installation of IBM TADDM as the topology discovery
B.reuse of DB2 as the Database Server
reuse of IBM Tivoli Directory as the LDAP security control
new installation of IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
reuse of BMC Atrium as the topology discovery
C.new installation of DB2 as the Database Server
reuse of Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
new installation of IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
reuse of BMC Atrium as the topology discovery
D.new installation of MS SQL Server as the Database Server
reuse of Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
new installation of WebLogic as the J2EE container
new installation of IBM TADDM as the topology discovery
Answer: A

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NO.11 Given that the customer's IT environment has been verified, which two prerequisite steps need to be
taken to ensure that CCMDB requirements have been met? (Choose two.)
A.examine the OS platform for the TADDM server for meeting requirements
B.examine the LDAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
C.examine the SOAP interface with the Common Data Model for meeting requirements
D.examine the hardware specifications for the Windows Administrative console for meeting requirements
E.examine the communication between the authentication client and the authentication server for meeting
requirements
Answer: AD

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NO.12 During an impact analysis exercise, which two terminologies are of utmost importance and subjects of
concern for a working CCMDB environment? (Choose two.)
A.Outage
B.Upgrade in performance
C.Downgrade of performance
D.Increased Change Requests
E.Decreased Change Requests
Answer: AC

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NO.13 Which category of individuals are needed to certify the validity of an impact analysis for a given
CCMDB environment?
A.Subject Matter Experts
B.Environmental Experts
C.Chief Information Officers
D.Human Resources Officers
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is true regarding process managers?
A.Each is a customized version of its Tivoli process automation engine.
B.All process managers run through the Tivoli process automation engine.
C.Each process manager must install its own Tivoli process automation engines for CCMDB.
D.All process managers are run only by the Tivoli process automation engine's administrator.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the core of the Tivoli process automation engine?
A.a J2EE application running in the WebSphere environment
B.a special standalone application based on Tivoli framework services
C.a Visual Basic application modified by the Maximo development team
D.a Visual Basic application on top of the Tivoli Scripting language and WebSphere
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer wants to implement CCMDB to handle the companys IT Change Requests. The customer
is considering several supported configurations to better reuse the companys existent middleware.
Which configurations are valid options for the customer?
A.MS SQL Server as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
B.Oracle as the Database Server
MS Active Directory as the LDAP security control
JBoss Application Server as the J2EE container
C.MySQL as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
IBM WebSphere Network Deployment as the J2EE container
D.IBM DB2 as the Database Server
Sun Directory Server as the LDAP security control
WebLogic as the J2EE container
Answer: A

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NO.17 One of the tasks that must be performed to install CCMDB is to analyze the roles and responsibilities
of individuals in the project.
Which step must be performed to create a document to map the activities and tasks to specific roles in a
CCMDB deployment?
A.define the level of effort for each task
B.define the roles involved in the process
C.define the tasks that will be performed during the project
D.create a Project Plan to outline what steps will be performed
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is used to configure and run process definitions in CCMDB?
A.Work definition
B.Process definition
C.Process configuration
D.Work Order management
Answer: D

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NO.19 A document needs to be created to show the roles that will be defined when deploying CCMDB.
What is the primary goal when creating this document?
A.create a list of activities to map to roles
B.create a Work Task Structure of activities
C.identify and map roles to the defined tasks
D.create a Task Breakdown Structure of activities
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statement best describes the Tivoli process automation engine of the CCMDB?
A.a platform on which process managers run
B.a platform that networks all process managers to one
C.a single service that helps users connecting to the CCMDB
D.a group of services, each related to a single process manager
Answer: A

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NO.21 What does the Tivoli process automation engine provide to the CCMDB?
A.Workflows
B.Impact Analysis
C.Audit Processes
D.Change Requests
Answer: A

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NO.22 What is the application that contains the impact analysis feature in CCMDB?
A.Work Management
B.Change Management
C.Problem Management
D.Workflow Management
Answer: B

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
The Exhibit shows the top level definition of the Standard Change Job Plan. A user needs to modify it so
that the Assessment task needs to be completed before Approval can start, and the Approval and the
Schedule can start in parallel.
How can this be accomplished?
A.set the Approval and Schedule predecessors to 10
B.set the Assessment, Approval, and Schedule predecessors to 10
C.set the Assessment, Approval, and Schedule predecessors to none
D.set the Approval predecessors to 10 and the Schedule predecessors to none
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which statement is true about TADDM and CCMDB?
A.CCMDB is a required component of TADDM.
B.TADDM is a required component of CCMDB.
C.TADDM and CCMDB must be installed on the same system.
D.CCMDB serves as a discovery tool, while TADDM serves as a data repository.
Answer: B

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NO.25 What will impact analysis in CCMDB influence?
A.the increase of tasks
B.the creation of Change requests
C.the reduction of Change requests
D.the creation of implementation tasks
Answer: D

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NO.26 What is the purpose of auditing CIs?
A.to identify Discovered CIs whose attributes do match the authorized attributes, and to take steps to
reconcile all child attributes
B.to identify Authorized CIs whose attributes do match the Discovered attributes, and to take steps to
reconcile all child attributes
C.to identify CIs whose actual status or other attributes do not match the authorized values, and to take
steps to resolve the variances
D.to identify CIs whose actual status or other attributes do match the authorized values, and to take steps
to synchronize all child attributes
Answer: C

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NO.27 What is the purpose of the Manage CI Hierarchies dialog?
A.to provide scope for CI promotion.
B.to provide mapping for CI promotion.
C.to provide mapping and scope for CI promotion.
D.to provide mapping, scope, and rules for CI promotion.
Answer: C

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NO.28 There was a new Change record submitted. One can track progress of change using attribute called
Progress. Which statement is true regarding tracking progress of change using an attribute called
Progress?
A.Progress value can be updated only manually by operator.
B.Progress value can be updated by automated task defined in the Job Plan.
C.Progress value cannot be updated manually; it gets updated only by a dedicated workflow.
D.Progress value will be updated only automatically always when Status attribute is changed for the
Change record.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which two options are a prerequisite for configuring single sign-on (SSO) so that users can navigate
between TADDM and CCMDB using SSO? (Choose two.)
A.SSL
B.SSH
C.Kerberos
D.Client-authentication
E.File-based repository
Answer: AD

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NO.30 Which two actions are performed from the CCMDB administrative workstation? (Choose two.)
A.import TADDM data
B.apply language packages
C.deploy CCMDB EAR (Enterprise Archive) files
D.install patches and updates for required middleware
E.manage CCMDB Application Runtime Information Data
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 000-M25

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Team Concert Technical Sales Mastery Test)

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A.Team reports/web dashboards and a WAN-enabled repository facilitate remote collaboration.
B.Video conferencing and VOIP support allows ad-hoc meetings with team members at any location.
C.Multilingual and translation support 17 common languages and dialects.
D.Fully integrated FTP and rcp (remote copy) support allows team members to copy files to/from any
location.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Rational Team Concert client license type entitles full access to all capabilities?
A.Contributor
B.Developer
C.Designer
D.Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which aspect of the Software Delivery Lifecycle is a key capability of Rational Team Concert?
A.Business Modeling
B.Iteration Planning
C.Prototyping
D.Component Assembly
Answer: B

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products?
A.Customizable dashboards provide a real-time view of project status.
B.RTC provides check-out/edit/check-in functionality.
C.Branching and merging is supported across multiple versions.
D.RTC provides advanced diff/change/delta analysis to find differences between versions.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What describes the overall objective of Rational Team Concert?
A.It is a team collaboration solution that seamlessly integrates common application lifecycle services.
B.It allows a development team to find and re-use development assets.
C.It provides an open-source Integrated Development Environment.
D.It provides a UML-based visual modeling and design tool.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M24

Exam Name: IBM (M24 IBM Rational AppScan Technical Sales Mastery Test v1 )

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NO.1 Which AppScan feature is used to verify that AppScan is still logged in to the application during
scanning?
A.In-session detection
B.Manual Explore
C.Automatic Explore
D.Automatic Form Fill
Answer:A

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NO.2 How can you specify what information is included in an AppScan report?
A.By specifying particular tests
B.By selecting / deselecting individual items of information
C.By exploring manually
D.By creating custom tests
Answer:B

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NO.3 What happens when AppScan generates an Industry Standard report?
A.It maps the discovered vulnerabilities to a set of industry-specific checkpoints.
B.It generates and executes industry-specific tests.
C.It provides industry-specific advisories.
D.It applies an industry-specific test policy.
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which AppScan user interface provides relevant information about how AppScan tests for a particular
vulnerability?
A.Application Tree
B.Request / Response
C.Advisory
D.Application Data
E.Remediation Tasks View
F.Security Issues View
Answer:B

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NO.5 What information does the 'Difference' displayed in the Request / Response tab provide?
A.The difference between two tests
B.How AppScan constructed the test HTTP request
C.How the vulnerability was resolved
D.How the web application page has been modified from its previous version
Answer:B

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Exam Code: COG-105

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 8 BI Technical Specialist)

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NO.1 A customer wishes to secure all external dispatcher communications while continuing to use
non-secure internal dispatcher communications. What is true about this request?
A. It would require two gateway servers.
B. The Internal and External dispatcher URIs must use different ports.
C. The Internal and External dispatcher URIs must use the same port.
D. All the URI protocol settings must be changed from HTTP to HTTPS.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Each time a configuration is altered and saved, date-stamped versions of these two
configuration files are automatically saved in the c8_location/configuration directory. What are
these two files?
A. cogformat.xsd and cqeconfig.xsd
B. cogstartup.xml and coglocale.xml
C. cogserver.xml and cogstartup.xml
D. cogstartup.xsd and coglocale.xsd
Answer: B

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NO.3 To setup database connectivity to the customer's corporate datastores, the installer must
ensure that the database API software is installed on which servers?
A. On all content manager servers.
B. On all web servers.
C. On all report servers.
D. On all report servers and on all content manager servers
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is true about Core Dump files?
A. Are generated weekly in Cognos 8.
B. Contain a partial dump of the memory after Cognos 8 fails.
C. Indicate a serious problem with the program.
D. Occur when a processor core overheats.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Cognos 8 alternate gateway works with IBM HTTPD Server?
A. ISAPI
B. CGI
C. MOD
D. IDA
Answer: C

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NO.6 When viewing the c8_location/webapps/p2pd/WEB-INF/lib directory during an Oracle 10g
Content Store configuration which file should be removed before installing either ojdbc14.jar or
ojdbc5.jar?
A. classes12.zip
B. classes14.jar
C. classes12.jar
D. ojdbc14.zip
Answer: C

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NO.7 When trying to save the configuration, an error is received stating that the Java Runtime
Environment has changed. What may be the cause of this error?
A. The OJDBC files have not been copied from the Oracle client to the Cognos installation directory.
B. The Content Manager has not been started.
C. Comdlg32.ocx has not been registered.
D. The configuration data was encrypted using a different JRE than the one currently used by the
Cognos 8 components.
Answer: D

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NO.8 As it relates to the Cognos products, what is Garbage Collection (GC)?
A. JVM releasing objects back to memory.
B. Cognos 8 and CRN clearing up temp files.
C. Clearing up old Cognos 8 reports.
D. Removing unused report views.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: LOT-849

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Managing Servers and Users )

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NO.1 In order to save time, the Domino administrator wants to establish a default setting for numerous
portions of a policy document. Which of the following actions provide this function?
A."How to apply" in the policy document
B."User defined" in the person document
C."Set standard" agent in the Domino Directory
D."Default setting" in the server configuration document
Answer:A

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NO.2 You have created a Domino cluster of two servers for your mail users. You are attempting to enable the
Out of Office server service. Which of the following best describes why this feature is not functioning?
A.One server is Domino 8 and one server is Domino 7.
B.The servers are in different organizational certifiers.
C.User are utilzing the calendar access view in Lotus Notes 8.
D.User are utilizing Lotus Notes clients and Domino Web Access.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Xavier has recently created a security policy that forces the user to change their Notes password the
first time they use the client. However, existing users are not being forced to do so. What is the cause of
this?
A.The policy was not assigned during registration.
B.The user has already changed their Notes password.
C.The policy does not have a forced password length.
D.The user has logged in from the web via HTTP first.
Answer:A

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NO.4 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of the
following locations do they enable this ability?
A.The server document
B.The security policy document
C.The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D.The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which of the following Notes client tasks automates the deployment of policies to the users?
A.ndyncfg
B.nupdate
C.nplcyupd
D.ncfgclient
Answer:A

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NO.6 New users are attempting to change their Lotus Notes user.id password. However, anyone that
attempts to end the new password with an exclamation point is denied from using that new password.
What is the cause of this denial?
A.Custom client policy
B.Custom desktop policy
C.Custom control policy
D.Custom password policy
Answer:D

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NO.7 Your deployed composite applications are updating on a scheduled basis. Which of the following may
a composite application reference as application requirements when deployed to Lotus Notes 8 users?
A.A local update.xml file
B.Only one Eclipse feature
C.One or more Eclipse features
D.A remote Portal Authentication URL
Answer:C

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NO.8 Sang uses the Administration Process (AdminP) to move a user's mail file to a different mail server.
What must Sang do in order for the new mail file to be created and the old mail file to be deleted?
A.Update the user's location documents.
B.Modify the mailserver field in the user's person document.
C.Give the user rights to create new databases on the new mail server.
D.Approve the deletion of the old mail file in the ADMIN4.NSF database.
Answer:D

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NO.9 Disclaimer text may be added by the server in which of the following locations in a mail memo?
A.Top of the body only
B.Top and bottom of the body
C.As attachment and subject line
D.Subject line and bottom of body
Answer:B

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NO.10 The default period for a user rename request to remain active is how many days?
A.14 days
B.21 days
C.30 days
D.60 days
Answer:B

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NO.11 The Calendar Cleanup tool is available in which policy setting document?
A.Archive
B.Desktop
C.Security
D.Registration
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which policy allows the administrator to configure lock-down settings per field?
A.Mail policy settings document
B.Desktop policy settings document
C.Archive policy settings document
D.Registration policy settings document
Answer:A

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NO.13 New and updated features and plug-ins for the Lotus Notes client are downloaded from which of the
following?
A.Client sites
B.Updates sites
C.Smart Upgrade sites
D.Provisioning client
Answer:B

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NO.14 Virginia is utilizing the Manage Groups tool from the Domino administrator client. She has chosen
'Only member hierarchies'. What restrictions will that place on the search results?
A.It will prevent terminated employees from accessing servers.
B.It will display all of the groups in which the selected user is a member.
C.It will list by organization, all people and groups in the selected directory.
D.It will list alphabetically, all people and groups in the selected directory.
Answer:B

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NO.15 DaJuan wishes to review the status of all the successful Smart Upgrades performed but finds that
some of the reports are missing. What is the cause of these missing reports?
A.Successful Smart Upgrades do not generate reports.
B.Smart Upgrades have no reporting associated with them.
C.He is not currently looking at the reports in the archive view.
D.He waited to view reports outside of the number of days to keep reports.
Answer:D

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NO.16 Brenda, the Domino administrator, is creating a probe for DDM. What are the possible scheduling
options the probe could run?
A.A schedule that Brenda specifies
B.A schedule decided by the administration hub server
C.The probe can run on an as-needed basis as configured by Brenda
D.DDM probe schedules may not be modified and must use the default settings
Answer:A

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NO.17 Kathleen, the Domino administrator, has created a new message disclaimer in a policy and wishes to
push that to the clients. What command can Kathleen utilize to force the process?
A.tell server process disclaimer
B.tell server process nmdisclaim
C.tell adminp process mailpolicy
D.tell adminp process disclaimer
Answer:C

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NO.18 When are custom password policies downloaded to the user's id file?
A.When the user closes the Notes client
B.When the user authenticates with their home server
C.When the user is directed to authenticate with a hub server
D.When the user selects the option to synchronize their Notes password
Answer:B

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NO.19 Which one of the following best describes the client version reporting feature?
A.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version only is added to the Person document in
the Domino Directory.
B.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version only is added to the version control
document in the log file.
C.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version and operating system platform machine
name are added to the Person document in the log file.
D.When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version and operating system platform machine
name are added to the Person document in the Domino Directory.
Answer:D

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NO.20 The Activity Trends database is called which of the following?
A.Trends.nsf
B.Activity.nsf
C.ActTrend.nsf
D.ActvTrnd.nsf
Answer:B

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NO.21 Dominique has a number of open Notes documents in her Notes client, and she would like to quickly
close all the tabs at once. How can she do this?
A.Actions Close All Tabs
B.File Close Current Open
C.Actions Close Current Open
D.File Close All Open Window Tabs
Answer:D

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NO.22 Previously in Lotus Notes, users would utilize the word AND in all capital letters to accrue for searches.
However, the default in Domino 8 uses which of the following for accrual?
A.comma
B.period
C.apostrophe
D.quotations
Answer:A

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NO.23 Vince, an end user, has noticed that his room reservation still has an hourglass icon next to it in the
resource.nsf database. What is a likely cause of seeing this icon?
A.The request for the reservation has been accepted.
B.The request for the reservation has been declined.
C.The request for the reservation is pending system approval.
D.The request for the reservation needs the resource owner approval.
Answer:C

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NO.24 In which of the following databases does the Server Health Monitor store it's health reports?
A.shmon.nsf
B.dommon.nsf
C.statrep.nsf
D.serverhm.nsf
Answer:B

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NO.25 Mariam incorrectly entered her Internet password numerous times and the lockout policy disabled her
access. As the administrator, where would you proceed to unlock her user account and what is the result
of unlocking her account?
A.You open inetlockout.nsf; unlocking the user does not change their password on next login.
B.You open names.nsf; unlocking the user forces the user to change their password on next login.
C.You open certsrv.nsf; unlocking the user forces both their Notes and Internet password to be changed
on next login.
D.You open passhold.nsf; unlocking the user resets the user password which they receive in an
automatically generated email.
Answer:A

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NO.26 Cindy, the Domino administrator, is having issues with numerous mail rules acting sequentially on a
message. What should she do to interrupt the mail rules from being processed?
A.Create a 'stop processing' action in the rules.
B.Issue a 'stop processing' command on the server console.
C.Issue a 'stop processing' command on the server through a program document.
D.Create an agent in mail.box to stop all rule processing after a certain time.
Answer:A

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NO.27 What step is required before creating a resource document?
A.A mail document
B.A site document
C.A mail-in database for the resource
D.A hub server running the RnRMgr task
Answer:B

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NO.28 By entering the server console command "show schedule -DDM", what result is displayed?
A.Which programs are scheduled to run
B.What agents are scheduled to run next
C.The probes that are scheduled to run next
D.The next scheduled replication time and the replication type
Answer:C

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NO.29 JoAnne lost a document she had been creating in a Domino application when the power in the building
failed. The Autosave feature was active. What must JoAnne do to recover her work?
A.Restart Notes with the recover option.
B.Launch the Autosave database (as_autosave.nsf) and retrieve the saved document.
C.Relaunch Notes, select Yes for recovering unsaved documents, and select the specific unsaved
document to recover.
D.Open the application and select Recover Changes from the Edit menu. The changes are recovered
from the hidden $Autosave view.
Answer:C

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NO.30 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to configure
in this policy?
A.The ability to open SmartSuite files
B.The ability to allow the user to run macros
C.The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D.The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer:D

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