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Exam Code: 000-783
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureFlex Technical Support V2)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An IBM customer is concerned with transfering their Power AIX workloads to PureFlex.
Which of the following tools can predict the performance of AIX workloads on PureFlex?
A. Power Configurator
B. System Planning Tool
C. Live Partition Mobility
D. Systems Workload Estimator
Answer: D

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NO.2 Design criteria dictates the use of SAN pass-thru now and the ability to upgrade to full fabric
capability later. Which of the following is the most cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. Select the 8Gb SAN Switch module now and enable full fabric functionality later
B. Select the 8Gb SAN Pass-thru module now and enable full fabric functionality later
C. Select the 8Gb SAN Switch module now and switch to Brocade interoperability mode later
D. Select the 8Gb SAN Pass-thru module now and convert to full functionality through activation
codes later
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer wants to purchase a PureFlex solution with 10Gb network interfaces on a 32core
Power node. Each virtual machine has a critical function and unplanned down time must be avoided.
Which of the following provides the most resilient solution?
A. p260 server with two 10Gb chassis switches
B. p460 server with two 10Gb chassis switches
C. p260 server with one 10Gb chassis switch with the first switch activation upgrade
D. p460 server with one 10Gb chassis switch with the first switch activation upgrade
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following virtualization products is required to create logical partitions on the
p460 compute node?
A. HMC
B. KVM
C. IVM
D. PowerVM
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following features is only available with the Flex System Manager Advanced
license?
A. Image Management
B. Fabric Management
C. Storage Management
D. Virtualization Management
Answer: A

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NO.6 A PureFlex prospect has CLARiiON CX4-240, AMS 2100, HP 8200, and Dell EqualLogic. They
wish to consolidate by virtualizing with IBM Flex Systems V7000 Storage Node. Which of the
following will be an issue?
A. HP 8200
B. AMS 2100
C. Dell EqualLogic
D. CLARiiON CX4-240
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-588
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture V8.1 Solution Design)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A company is experiencing some batch aborts that have been traced to recognition failure in
the OCR engine. What is the recommendation to alleviate this?
A. Use managed recognition.
B. Switch to another engine that will sacrifice accuracy for stability.
C. Check to make sure that the input images are oriented correctly.
D. Check the image file sizes. OCR will not work on images bigger than 82.3K. A lower resolution will
be required.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An IBM Datacap Taskmaster developer has a specific page type which needs custom verify
panels to be created for both thick client and web interfaces. Which Datacap components can the
developer leverage to display custom verify interfaces to the end user?
A. FastDoc for thick client and AVerify.aspx for web.
B. DotEdit for thick client and VeriFine.aspx for web.
C. DotScan for thick client and ImgEnter.aspx for web.
D. Batch Pilot for thick client and AIndex.aspx for web.
Answer: B

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6. A customer scans in a document and the template is not recognized within the IBM Datacap
Taskmaster Capture application. What happens when the image or page is not identified?
A. The unidentified page is classified as "Default."
B. The unidentified page is removed from the DCO.
C. The page is classified as the previous identified page.
D. The page is classified as "Other" and has to be otherwise identified.
Answer: D

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7. Which of the following is NOT an "out of the box" export target for IBM Datacap Taskmaster
Capture?
A. Microsoft SharePoint
B. Microsoft SQL Database
C. Open Text Cloud Storage
D. IBM Content Manager (CM8)
Answer: C

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8. For optimal testing results of fingerprints created with AnalyzeImage, which of the following
image processing settings is NOT required?
A. Deskew
B. Line removal
C. Dot Removal
D. Border removal
Answer: B

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9. A customer has remote users that will be scanning in paper documents for their IBM Datacap
Taskmaster applications outside of their office network. What is the BEST method of ingestion for
the customer's application?
A. Use the Taskmaster Web client to scan and then upload the documents, using a TWAIN driver .
B. Use Taskmaster DotScan using ISIS or TWAIN scanner for the remote user to scan in new batches.
C. Use a fax machine where remote user fax images to a Rightfax server which is ingested by a
RuleRunner server using a OpenTextFaxServer task.
D. Use a third party application with a scanner for the remote user who then upload the images to a
network folder which is ingested by a RuleRunner server using VScan task.
Answer: A

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10. The IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture Studio Test tab provides all EXCEPT the following
runtime processing information?
A. Log file contents
B. Recognition zones
C. Custom action code
D. Batch hierarchy variables
Answer: C

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11. The client requirements outline the need to return documents to the original scan operator
(or department) for verification. What task detail settings will provide this functionality?
A. Mode: Router and Store: User ID
B. Queue by: User and Store: None
C. Mode: Router and Queue by: User
D. Queue by: User and Store: User ID
Answer: D

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12. A solution designer is using the Application Wizard to create a new project. What are some
of the object types, within the hierarchy, that are created by default?
A. Document, Page and Field
B. Batch, Document Separators, Page
C. Variables, Document, Page and Field
D. Main Page, Trailing Page and Other Page
Answer: A

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13. A customer has more than 200 types of documents to be scanned using IBM Datacap
Taskmaster Capture. Some documents have more than 100 index fields that need to be captured.
How many documents / pages / fields can be created in the DCO?
A. Unlimited documents / pages / fields
B. Limited to 50 documents / pages / fields
C. Limited to 10 documents / pages / fields
D. Limited to 100 documents / pages / fields
Answer: A

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14. When IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture converts a single multi-page file to individual a TIFF
file, what determines the maximum number of files that are created and output using the Convert
library actions?
A. The SetMaxImageFiles action determines the maximum.
B. There is no restriction on the maximum number of output files.
C. Inherently a maximum of 1,296 individual TIFF files can be output.
D. Individual Convert actions properties determine the maximum number of output files.
Answer: C

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15. A race condition can occur when two or more threads are able to access shared data. Which
statement is TRUE about the automated vscan task?
A. By default all batch creation tasks are synchronized in memory and can run simultaneously
without conflict.
B. Batch creation tasks from two different applications looking in the same input folder can run
simultaneously without conflict.
C. Batch creation tasks from two different applications looking in two different input folders can run
simultaneously without conflict.
D. Batch creation tasks from a single application but in separate jobs looking in the same input
folders can run simultaneously without conflict.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The solution designer is creating a standalone FastDoc application and needs to add a
workflow. What construct is created to contain the workflow?
A. Task Profile
B. Batch Profile
C. Batch monitor
D. FastApp template
Answer: B

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NO.4 A customer has images that have machine print as well as handwritten data on the image. Is it
necessary to have an OCR_s or OCR_a engine as well as an ICR engine to extract/read data from the
image, and why?
A. Yes, both OCR_s and ICR_c engines will have to be used.
B. No, ICR_c engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
C. No, OCR_s engine works well with hand-printed and machine-printed text.
D. No, OCR_a is the only engine that can read hand-printed and machine-printed text.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An IBM Datacap Taskmaster Capture system is being architected to support a large capture
processing operation consisting of 500 dedicated Taskmaster web users located in the same facility.
What is the minimum recommended number of Microsoft IIS instances?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-407
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition System Administration B)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is a requirement for implementing the IBM Notes password expiration of Notes users?
A. Notes shared login must be enabled.
B. Users must have their ID in the Notes ID vault.
C. Password checking must be enabled on the IBM Domino server.
D. Password expiration must be configured via a Policy and Person document.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Charles is the ID Vault administrator. What role in the ID Vault database would allow Charles to
extract ID files and gain access to users' encrypted data?
A. [Auditor]
B. [User Access]
C. [Password reset]
D. [Vault Administrator]
Answer: A

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NO.3 What encryption standard has been introduced in IBM Domino 9.0 Social Edition?
A. Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA-2)
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS)
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which minimum access level must a user have in order to view a database ACL?
A. Editor
B. Author
C. Reader
D. Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 Other than the IBM Domino Directory, what happens to documents in databases when the
Administration Process performs a Rename Person or a Delete Person request?
A. Names in all fields are updated.
B. Nothing. Only the Domino Directory is updated.
C. Names in Readers and Authors fields are updated where the Administration server has been
defined.
D. Names in Readers and Authors fields are updated where the Administration server has been
defined and where the server setting "Modify fields of type Reader or Author" is set.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a limitation of implementing IBM Notes Shared Login (NSL)?
A. NSL cannot be implemented on 64-bit operating systems.
B. When NSL is enabled, Notes ID vault cannot be implemented.
C. NSL cannot be implemented through the use of a security policy.
D. When NSL is enabled, IBM Domino password policies cannot be implemented.
Answer: D

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NO.7 How does the Protected Groups feature work?
A. The defined group(s) will be protected from receiving mail with attachments.
B. The defined group(s) cannot be accidentally deleted from the user's local directory.
C. The defined group(s) cannot be accidentally deleted from the IBM Domino Directory.
D. The defined group(s) will be protected from mass mailings originating from their home server.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is used to determine the level of access users and servers have to a database?
A. Policy settings
B. Server document
C. Access Control List
D. Execution Control List
Answer: C

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NO.9 Where is an X.509 certificate, which is used to sign and encrypt SMTP mail, stored?
A. in the notes.ini
B. in the IBM Notes ID file
C. in the Personal Names and Address Book of a user
D. in the Person document in the IBM Domino Directory
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where is username and password information stored following successful session
authentication?
A. browser cache
B. browser cookie
C. browser volatile memory
D. nowhere, as this would be a security risk
Answer: B

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NO.11 The idpcat.nsf will contain which document(s) with the SAML configuration?
A. IdP assertion document(s)
B. SAML assertion document(s)
C. IdP configuration document(s)
D. SAML configuration document(s)
Answer: C

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NO.12 What two statements are true about the ID recovery process? (Choose two.)
A. Can be used to recover user ID files.
B. Can be used to recover certifier ID files.
C. Can be used to recover internet passwords.
D. It removes the need for IDs to be stored on the local user's machine.
E. ID recovery administrators do not have to be IBM Domino administrators.
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 An administrator is not able to access a database on an IBM Domino server as he/she receives
the error "You are not authorized to access that database". What can the administrator do to access
that database?
A. Switch IDs to the server ID then try to access the database.
B. Turn on "Full Access Administration" then try to access the database.
C. Run maintenance (fixup, compact, updall) against the database in question.
D. Try to modify the Access Control List of the database by selecting the database in the Files tab of
the administrator client.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the minimum level of access that a CA administrator must have to the IBM Domino
Directory?
A. Editor
B. Author
C. Manager
D. Designer
Answer: A

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NO.15 When would an administrator typically need to adjust the java.policy file?
A. when an administrator wants to control what JVM version is installed on the client machine
B. when an administrator wants to control updates to the JVM version on an IBM Domino server
C. when an administrator needs to adjust the permissions for a Java applet running within a
webpage
D. when an administrator needs to adjust the permissions for a Java agent, process or XPage running
Java code
Answer: A

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Exam Code: SU0-224
Exam Name: Huawei (Huawei Certified Datacom Professional - Fast Certification)
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NO.1 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
Answer: ABC

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NO.2 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are factors that affect QoS?
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

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NO.4 Which are the functions of the route target on an MPLS VPN network?
A. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
B. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
C. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
D. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
Answer: AB

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NO.5 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255.
255. 240.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which statement about the trunk interface is true?
A. A trunk interface is always connected to hosts.
B. Multiple VLAN IDs can be set on a trunk interface. The VLAN IDs can be the same as or different from
the PVID.
C. The trunk interface cannot have a PVID.
D. If the trunk interface receives a packet with a VLAN not in the allowed VLAN list, the trunk interface
broadcast the packet in the VLAN.
Answer: B

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NO.7 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
A. 3100
B. 100
C. 1008
D. 100 200
Answer: B

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NO.9 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
Answer: D

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NO.10 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message.
Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.11 Which of the following configurations can be performed to implement fast failure detection on a
network?
A. Reduce the holdtime of Join/Prune messages.
B. Reduce the interval for an interface to send Hello messages.
C. Set up a PIM BFD session between network segment neighbors.
D. Reduce the interval for sending Join/Prune messages.
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
A. Origin
B. Nexthop
C. Community
D. MED
Answer: C

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NO.13 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
A. 100
B. 3100
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.16 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to
the same destination IP address in different VPNs.
How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all
related routing information.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. NEXT_HOP
C. ORIGIN
D. AS PATH
Answer: BCD

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NO.19 Which of the following technologies can reduce the scale of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answer: A

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NO.20 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: HP0-W03
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architeture)
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Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are implementing an extended SAN infrastructure between two data centers which are 9km
apart. HP StorageWorks Edge Switch 2/24 is used in this environment. Which ports could be used
to connect the ISL between this data centers?
A.All ports support links for this distance by default.
B.You must enable the extended ISL ports individually.
C.The first four ports can connect a long-distance ISL.
D.Long-distance ISL ports must be unlocked by a license.
Correct:C

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NO.2 During the SAN architecture process, the SAN architect must explain to the stakeholders how
the new infrastructure will be realized. Which information should this explanation contain?
A.options that can be installed at a later time
B.current SAN components that will be utilized
C.details about storage and SAN management
D.overview of HP multivendor support services
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which task must be performed prior to starting a merging process between two switches?
(Select two.)
A.Remove duplicated domain IDs.
B.Set port speed of ISL ports to a fixed value.
C.Disable zoning configuration on both switches.
D.Enable the same passwords on both switches.
E.Check to see if the same feature licenses are installed.
Correct:A E

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NO.4 Click the Task button. Type the appropriate multi-mode cable length for the given fibre channel
speeds.
A.150 300 500
Correct:A

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NO.5 A customer has asked you to implement VSANs in a C-Series fibre channel switch fabric. What
is a unique feature of VSANs?
A.It allows you to apply different fabric settings in one switch.
B.It allows you to connect different vendor switches to one infrastructure.
C.It allows you to configure more than one management IP address per switch.
D.It allows you to minimize oversubscription on connected ISLs through path load balancing.
Correct:A

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NO.6 What are typical consequences of insufficient knowledge transfer to the customer for their SAN
environment? (Select two.)
A.unused bandwidth
B.wasted disk space
C.management errors
D.event misinterpretation
E.unnecessary FC data traffic
Correct:C D

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NO.7 Which zoning type must be used in a heterogeneous fabric with M-Series and B-Series switches?
A.VSAN zoning
B.name server zoning
C.fabric address zoning
D.domain-port-area zoning
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which fabric migration path is shown in the exhibit?
A.meshed to tree
B.cascaded to tree
C.cascaded to meshed
D.meshed to cascaded
Correct:B

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NO.9 Where do you install the HP Cluster Extension (CLX)?
A.on the switch as a license
B.on all servers in the cluster
C.on one cluster server at each site
D.on the same server as Command View
Correct:B

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NO.10 Click the Task button. Match the appropriate migration path to the given SAN topologies by
dragging and dropping the boxes. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete
drag and drop items.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1

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Exam Code: HP0-081
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

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NO.2 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

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NO.3 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

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NO.5 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

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NO.6 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

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NO.7 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

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NO.10 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.11 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

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NO.12 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

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NO.13 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

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NO.14 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

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NO.15 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

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NO.16 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

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NO.17 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

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NO.18 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

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NO.19 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

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NO.20 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y12
Exam Name: HP (Building ProCurve Resilient, Adaptive Networks)
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Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You must determine if the default settings on ProCurve 5406zl switches will provide adequate QoS for
a multimedia training application. What must you learn about the application in order to make this
determination?
A. if it recognizes IGMP joins from receivers
B. if it uses TCP or UDP as a transport protocol
C. if it inserts Layer 2 or Layer 3 priority markers
D. if it supports Guaranteed Minimum Bandwidth
Answer: C

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NO.2 When does a router use administrative distance to determine which route to include in its route table?
A. when the router learned about multiple routes with equal-cost paths to the same destination
B. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using the
same routing protocol
C. when the router learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different routing protocols
or static configuration
D. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.3 You enter the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl:
3500.l(config)#ip route 22.0.0.0/8 172.16.100.100
However, when you enter show ip route to confirm your entry, no route to 22.0.0.0/8 appears in the route
table. Which
statement explains this condition?
A. The interface connected to 172.16.100.100 is down.
B. The switch has learned another route to 22.0.0.0/8 through OSPF.
C. The route table already includes a default route using 172.16.100.100.
D. The switch has not been configured with an IP address of 172.16.100.100.
Answer:A

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NO.4 You must design an IP addressing scheme for a network that must support 16 different types of users,
each with
different resource and security requirements. What is an advantage of ensuring that the number of
networks assigned to
each type of user is a power of 2?
A. It enables automatic summarization at classful boundaries.
B. It minimizes the number of VLANs required to support each type of user.
C. It ensures that an adequate number of IP addresses will be available for each type of user.
D. It simplifies summarization because all networks for each type of user can be summarized in a single
routing statement.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the role of an OSPF Area Border Router?
A. to connect multiple non-backbone areas
B. to connect a backbone area to non-backbone areas
C. to connect OSPF domains with domains that use other routing protocols
D. to connect a backbone area to the backbones of other OSPF routing domains
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the effect when the following command is entered at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-111)#qos priority 2
A. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with normal priority.
B. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with lower than normal priority.
C. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will be forwarded with higher than normal priority.
D. Packets entering the switch through VLAN 111 will retain the priority marker set by another device.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When does an LLDP-enabled switch start sending LLDP advertisements?
A. when QoS is enabled
B. when IP multicast is enabled
C. immediately after it has started
D. when it receives an LLDP request from a neighbor
Answer: C

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NO.8 Why does network congestion often cause more network congestion?
A. RSVP routers allocate more bandwidth to UDP applications.
B. TCP applications request retransmission of dropped packets.
C. QoS settings require switches to retransmit all real-time traffic.
D. 802.1p priorities are ignored after congestion reaches a user-defined threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.9 How many priority levels are specified by the IEEE 802.1p standard?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 8 D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the advantages of implementing IP routing technologies at the network edge? (Select two.)
A. provide per-user QoS
B. decrease the load on network core
C. eliminate the need for routing protocols
D. create smaller, localized broadcast domains
E. enhance support for default gateway redundancy
Answer: BD

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NO.11 What is a difference between voice traffic and video traffic?
A. Voice traffic is typically more difficult to route than streaming video traffic.
B. Voice traffic is typically more sensitive to delay than streaming video traffic.
C. Voice traffic is typically less sensitive to jitter than streaming video traffic.
D. Voice traffic is typically more bandwidth-intensive than streaming video traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which condition is necessary to enable a group of networks to be auto-summarized by a ProCurve
Switch 3500yl?
A. The address ranges to be summarized must be within different OSPF areas.
B. The address ranges to be summarized must be within a classful network boundary.
C. The address ranges to be summarized must be directly connected to a neighbor router.
D. The address ranges to be summarized must be accessible through a neighbor router interface.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is an advantage of locating routing intelligence at the edge of an enterprise network instead of in
the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
B. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and other protocols for default gateway redundancy.
C. The edge-oriented strategy enables ACLs and other traffic filters to be applied before traffic traverses
any part of the network.
D. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies summarization because each router must support VLANs only
for directly connected users.
Answer: C

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NO.14 While analyzing network traffic, you notice that many packets have an 802.1p value of 0. On a
ProCurve switch with default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. No prioritization settings are in effect on the network.
B. The traffic will be mapped to the normal priority queue.
C. The network relies on Layer 3 classification technologies
D. The network is not using the default settings on ProCurve switches.
Answer: B

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NO.15 By default, what type of route is redistributed in RIP updates by ProCurve ProVision ASIC switches?
A. static
B. default
C. OSPF
D. connected
Answer: D

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NO.16 While analyzing network traffic using a port monitor on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, you notice that
many packets have an 802.1p value of 1. If the switch has default QoS settings, what does this indicate?
A. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
B. The 8212zl has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
C. Another device has marked the traffic for low-priority forwarding.
D. Another device has marked the traffic for high-priority forwarding.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You must configure QoS on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl in the core layer of a network. One interface on
the switch receives traffic that uses only Layer 3 markers to indicate priority. What must you do to enable
the switch to forward this traffic with correct priority?
A. Set the QoS trust level to the appropriate value.
B. Enable the appropriate interpretation of the IP ToS field.
C. Configure port-based priorities for all ports forwarding this traffic.
D. Configure custom IEEE 802.1p maps for all ports forwarding this traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the difference between administrative distance and cost?
A. Administrative distance is applied only to routes learned through OSPF. Cost applies to RIP routes as
well as OSPF routes.
B. Administrative distance indicates the distance to remote networks learned through routing protocols.
Cost applies static routes and directly connected networks.
C. Administrative distance is determined solely through interactions among routers that share a routing
protocol. Cost can be defined by the administrator of each router.
D. Administrative distance is a locally significant value that can be used to break ties between routes
learned from different sources. Cost is a cumulative metric that indicates the number of hops to a remote
network.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Under what condition does the IEEE 802.1p field provide end-to-end prioritization?
A. All switches can classify traffic based on DSCP.
B. Source and destination hosts are in the same VLAN.
C. The network is experiencing high levels of congestion.
D. All links in the path between source and destination are tagged.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You will connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to port 8 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl.
Which configuration step will enable the switch to auto-configure the appropriate VLAN for the phone??
A. Enable LLDP-MED in the VLAN 1 configuration context.
B. Configure port 8 as a tagged member of a voice VLAN.
C. Enable LLDP-MED in the configuration context for a voice VLAN.
D. Define port 8 as an LLDP-MED port in the global configuration context.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-874
Exam Name: HP (Implementing Windows 2000 on HP ProLiant Clusters)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What are two ways that Compaq ProLiant clusters ensure reliability and investment protection of new
and existing clusters? (Choose two)
A. Certifies servers
B. Cluster application Tech Notes
C. Backward-compatible array controllers
D. Cost-effective migration paths across all cluster configurations
Answer:

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NO.2 What should NOT be modified in the cica.ini file?
A. Read/write levels.
B. User names.
C. Administrator password.
D. Anything other than read/write levels.
Answer:

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NO.3 What is the benefit of software load balancing?
A. Easier to manage than hardware load balancing.
B. Low cost.
C. Scalability
D. No processor load on the application server farms.
Answer:

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NO.4 Which command should be run to prepare the Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator service to
become cluster-aware?
A. comclust.exe
B. dtcprep.exe
C. tdcconfig.exe
D. clusdtc.exe
Answer:

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NO.5 What type of disk access support do SQL Server 2000 and the Cluster service provide?
A. Dynamic disk
B. Shared disk
C. Mutual disk
D. Shared-nothing disk
Answer:

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NO.6 What is the primary feature of the ProLiant HA/F500 Enhanced Disaster-Tolerant stretched-cluster
configuration?
A. It combines the functionality of Data Replication Manager with the failover functionality of the Windows
2000 Cluster service.
B. It stores vast amounts of data inexpensively for large businesses.
C. It combines Windows 2000 Cluster service functionality with Ethernet distribution to allow faster data
access.
D. It combines the functionality of SANworks Virtual Replicator with the functionality of the Windows 2000
Cluster service.
Answer:

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NO.7 How many simultaneous SQL Server instances can be running on a cluster?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer:

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NO.8 You have a ProLiant cluster running Windows NT 4.0. You are preparing to upgrade the cluster to
Windows 2000. What should you do before running the Primer Utility?
A. Dissolve NIC teams.
B. Run the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer.
C. Upgrade NIC teaming.
D. Dissolve the cluster.
Answer:

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NO.9 Which Exchange 2000 feature enables you to take mailboxes offline in smaller groups to reduce backup
time?
A. Distributed architecture
B. Consolidated architecture
C. Multiple virtual server instances
D. Active/active configuration
Answer:

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NO.10 What determines the state of each resource when a group fails over?
A. The rights of the resource within that group.
B. The dependencies of the resource on the other resources in the group.
C. The group assignments of the group in the Cluster Administrator.
D. The IP address within the failed group.
Answer:

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NO.11 In a Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Server environment, how many nodes can host a resource at
one time?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
Answer:

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NO.12 What is a cluster node?
A. A group of servers.
B. A cluster client.
C. A server that is a member of a cluster.
D. Any hardware component that is part of a cluster.
Answer:

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NO.13 What is one of the functions of the Cluster Node command?
A. Rename a cluster node.
B. Check the status of node resources.
C. Pause a cluster node.
D. Power down a cluster node.
Answer:

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NO.14 Which item is a storage subsystem restriction?
A. Storage Works Data Replication Manager (DRM) for the Storage Works MA8000 storage system
cannot be used to span physical Fiber Channel storage boxes.
B. Microsoft Windows 2000 must have a maximum of 12 drive letters per cluster for shared drives.
C. The Windows 2000 disk type must be dynamic, not basic.
D. Hardware-based disk fault tolerance cannot span physical Fiber Channel storage boxes, with the
exception of Storage Works DRM-enabled storage subsystems.
Answer:

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NO.15 Which tape library is NOT supported by the Enterprise Backup Solution?
A. SSL2020 AIT
B. Model 4000
C. Model 35/70 DLT
D. TL895
Answer:

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NO.16 Which three components are included in the reliability testing of Compaq ProLiant clustering solutions?
(Choose three)
A. Application software
B. System management software
C. Storage system
D. Interconnect options
E. Backup software
Answer:

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NO.17 What two features are exclusive to SQL Server 2000 when compared to SQL Server 7.0? (Choose
two)
A. Automatic detection of the cluster during installation.
B. Fully cluster-aware.
C. Hot standby active/passive configuration.
D. Mutual backup active/active configuration.
Answer:

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NO.18 The Compaq Cluster Backup Connectivity Kit is designed for what ProLiant system?
A. DL380 Packaged Cluster
B. DL580 Cluster
C. DL590/64 Cluster
D. DL760 Datacenter Cluster Solution
Answer:

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NO.19 How do you eliminate a single point of failure in hubs and switches?
A.Connect a single hub or switch to both adapters in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Connect redundant NICs to separate hubs or switches.
C. Design the cluster using only hubs and no switches.
D. Design the cluster to use NIC teaming.
Answer:

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NO.20 Identify two standard features of the Storage Works MSA1000 storage system by Compaq. (Choose
two)
A. 2Gb/s maximum transfer speeds.
B. Maximum of 84 Compaq Universal 1-inch Ultra3 drives supported.
C. Embedded 6-port 2Gb/s Fabric Switch.
D. Native FIBER Channel design.
Answer:

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